It IS the viagra for women because they produce produce the same ends by different means. In other words, both drugs assist people to have sex when their bodies don't necessarily feel like it. Believe it or not, most erectile dysfunction is not physiological, just the man not aroused by the woman he's going to have sex with. So I don't see the difference. Why should a man have to take a pill if he doesn't want sex but a female doesn't?
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It IS the viagra for women because they produce produce the same ends by different means. In other words, both drugs assist people to have sex when their bodies don't necessarily feel like it. Believe it or not, most erectile dysfunction is not physiological, just the man not aroused by the woman he's going to have sex with. So I don't see the difference. Why should a man have to take a pill if he doesn't want sex but a female doesn't?
June 26, 2010 - 10:17pmThis Comment
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