Facebook Pixel
Q: 

As the result of an affair, I got hpv 20 years ago. It was resolved by my doctor and I have had no abnormal paps since then and I have also been monogamous.

By May 1, 2013 - 7:23am
 
Rate This

My husband recently got an infection in his prostate or urinary tract and doc has insinuated it was sexually transmitted. I am not worried at all about his faithfulness. I am terrified that the hpv i had 20 years has now infected him. Is that even possible?

Add a Comment1 Comments

EmpowHER Guest
Anonymous

Every after intercourse it's a must that you should urinate to prevent urinary tract infection. Did u a have regular pap smear check ups? Were there any abnormalities? If none, then there might be some other reasons why he got the infection. First up, HPV is a virus it's not a bacteria. It's possible that he got the infection from improper hygiene, again it's important that after you engage in an intercourse you must urinate and it goes for both man and woman. - Casa Sandoval

May 2, 2013 - 11:56pm
Image CAPTCHA
Enter the characters shown in the image.
By submitting this form, you agree to EmpowHER's terms of service and privacy policy
Add a Comment

All user-generated information on this site is the opinion of its author only and is not a substitute for medical advice or treatment for any medical conditions. Members and guests are responsible for their own posts and the potential consequences of those posts detailed in our Terms of Service.

Sexually Transmitted Diseases

Get Email Updates

Sexually Transmitted Diseases Guide

Have a question? We're here to help. Ask the Community.

ASK

Health Newsletter

Receive the latest and greatest in women's health and wellness from EmpowHER - for free!