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If genitals warts are a STD and male spouse checks positive and female negative.Is it possible that male did not have more than one partner? Is it possible that female had more than one partner,even thou test negative and still pass virus on to spouse?

By Anonymous April 8, 2010 - 4:49am
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Hi Anonymous-

Genital warts are caused by a strain of the human papilloma virus (HPV). There are more than 70 strains of this virus, and only a few can cause the warts. I'm not certain what testing you've had, and here's why:

You may be examined for genital warts and not have any visible, but still have the virus that causes them. You may test positive for HPV but not have warts. The warts can appear six weeks or even many years after exposure, which can make it really difficult to identify which partner had them first. In addition, many people who become infected with HPV recover with no treatment.

So the answer to your question is it depends on the testing, and possibly yes. We have a good section on this topic: http://www.empowher.com/condition/genital-warts Another good source is the National Institutes of Health: http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/ency/article/000886.htm

April 8, 2010 - 6:44am
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