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As the result of an affair, I got hpv 20 years ago. It was resolved by my doctor and I have had no abnormal paps since then and I have also been monogamous.

By May 1, 2013 - 7:23am
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My husband recently got an infection in his prostate or urinary tract and doc has insinuated it was sexually transmitted. I am not worried at all about his faithfulness. I am terrified that the hpv i had 20 years has now infected him. Is that even possible?

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EmpowHER Guest

Every after intercourse it's a must that you should urinate to prevent urinary tract infection. Did u a have regular pap smear check ups? Were there any abnormalities? If none, then there might be some other reasons why he got the infection. First up, HPV is a virus it's not a bacteria. It's possible that he got the infection from improper hygiene, again it's important that after you engage in an intercourse you must urinate and it goes for both man and woman. - Casa Sandoval

May 2, 2013 - 11:56pm
HERWriter Guide

Hi and thanks for your post!

The infection you could have given your husband would be HPV.  Currently there is no test for men to see if they have HPV but it can be detected if they have an outward sign like genital warts.

What is the same of his infection? What exactly did the doctor say it was?


May 1, 2013 - 12:08pm
(reply to Susan Cody)

Susan - there are no outward signs; no genital warts. His infection is bacterial - possibly prostate or urinary.

May 1, 2013 - 1:11pm
HERWriter Guide (reply to mkpkhklk@gmail.com)

Hi again

Then it should not be anything like HPV which is a virus and is not a bacterial infection, so you should have no worries about infecting him with anything. 

Maybe he just has a UTI.I hope he feels better soon!



May 2, 2013 - 1:49pm
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