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As the result of an affair, I got hpv 20 years ago. It was resolved by my doctor and I have had no abnormal paps since then and I have also been monogamous.

By May 1, 2013 - 7:23am
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My husband recently got an infection in his prostate or urinary tract and doc has insinuated it was sexually transmitted. I am not worried at all about his faithfulness. I am terrified that the hpv i had 20 years has now infected him. Is that even possible?

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EmpowHER Guest

Every after intercourse it's a must that you should urinate to prevent urinary tract infection. Did u a have regular pap smear check ups? Were there any abnormalities? If none, then there might be some other reasons why he got the infection. First up, HPV is a virus it's not a bacteria. It's possible that he got the infection from improper hygiene, again it's important that after you engage in an intercourse you must urinate and it goes for both man and woman. - Casa Sandoval

May 2, 2013 - 11:56pm
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