Me (24) and my girlfriend (22) are getting a little bit paranoid and here’s what happened.
Her recent period started June 25, 2015.
And she said that there was still a little blood in her urine last July 1, 2015.
We had sex on that day (July 1,2015).
We first showered together with anti- bacterial soap and warm water.
After this, we went to bed and she sucked me off to get me hard then I put on a condom (newly bought with a 2019 expiration date) and we had sex. After several minutes I pulled out because I don’t want to ejaculate inside her even with a condom on. She then jacked me off to finish me (I came inside the condom). After this she took a shower while I checked the condom for holes by filling it up with water. There were no holes evident. Then I showered with soap and warm water after her.
After this we took a warm bath in the tub together with bubbles. This lasted for about 30 minutes. No genital contact happened. We just sat there side by side.
After the bath we again had sex. She then sucked me off to get me hard again and of course I put on another condom. After again several minutes, I felt that I can’t keep my penis hard so we stopped. I removed the condom and she jacked it off. We then went to the comfort room. She washed her hands with tap water and the anti - microbial soap thoroughly and fingered herself on the toilet afterwards. While I jack of in the shower until I came. I showered alone with the soap and the water and she joined me afterwards. After this I picked up the last condom we used and checked it again with water and no holes again were evident.
Take note that I am certain that no direct genital contact happened without a condom.
She also said that the day after (July 2, 2015) there was little blood on her panty liner and I think that that was just remnants of her period since it just ended.
Is there a high risk of pregnancy based on the scenarios above?
Sorry but we are getting a little paranoid.
Sorry for the long post.
Thanks in advance for the reply.
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