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By August 19, 2018 - 12:46pm
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I’ve engaged in sexual activity with other people in the past. I met a guy in January and I’ve only engaged in sexual activities with him since we met. We have had oral and vaginal sex at least 10 times. Never has he complained of any discomfort. We had sex and oral on Friday, August 3rd and we did it again the following week Friday, August 10th. I’ve only been with him sexually. There were no other men involved. He began complaining of having discharge coming out of his penis, urinating often, and feeling weak. Is it possible that I’ve given him an STD after we’ve had sex so many times and he didn’t have any complaints, plus there was no other man involved since I met him?

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Hello, Diya2386. Thank you for posting.

Even though you have not been with other men since meeting him, it is possible. He needs to see a doctor. If it is an STD or STI (sexually transmitted disease, sexually transmitted infection), treatment is needed no matter who gave it to who. He could have something else going on - such as bladder or urinary tract infection. You won't know until he gets checked.

Keep us updated.


August 19, 2018 - 1:47pm
(reply to Helena)

Is it possible that I had the STD months before meeting him and even though we’ve had sex many times before and he hasn’t had any symptoms he’s just now seeing them?

August 19, 2018 - 6:28pm
Guide (reply to Diya2386)

Hello again.

It is possible to be asymptomatic for a long period of time, depending on the type of STD. Once he is has seen his doctor, you will know more. Try not to worry.


August 20, 2018 - 4:31pm
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