If a man already urinated before he had sex, is there any sperms or semen in their pre-ejaculate at all? Can it be enough to make a pregnancy? Because on Internet, some says it does contain sperms (or semen), some others say if the man already urinate from his last ejaculation, then there will be no sperms (or semen) in their pre-cM. I don't know which one to rely on.
Thank you very much.